This page was exported from Valid Premium Exam [ http://premium.validexam.com ] Export date:Thu Sep 19 22:33:16 2024 / +0000 GMT ___________________________________________________ Title: New 2024 Realistic Free CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Dump Questions & Answer [Q73-Q93] --------------------------------------------------- New 2024 Realistic Free CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Dump Questions and Answer CS0-003 Practice Test Engine: Try These 305 Exam Questions CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, also known as the CS0-003 exam, is a well-respected industry certification that validates individuals' expertise in the field of cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is designed to assess the candidate's ability to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in identifying and mitigating cybersecurity threats, vulnerabilities and risks. CS0-003 exam is globally recognized and is aimed at professionals who are looking to enhance their knowledge and skills in the cybersecurity domain. The CySA+ certification is an important credential for IT professionals who are looking to advance their careers in cybersecurity. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is recognized by major tech companies and government agencies, and is a requirement for many cybersecurity jobs. The CySA+ certification is also a stepping stone to other advanced cybersecurity certifications, such as the Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) and Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) certifications.   NEW QUESTION 73An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?  Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS  Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header  Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains  Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header ExplanationThe output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.NEW QUESTION 74An older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. Which of the following factors would an analyst most likely communicate as the reason for this escalation?  Scope  Weaponization  CVSS  Asset value ExplanationWeaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation.NEW QUESTION 75Which of the following would a security analyst most likely use to compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization?  MITRE ATTACK  Cyber Kill Cham  OWASP  STIXTAXII ExplanationMITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communitiesNEW QUESTION 76An organization discovered a data breach that resulted in Pll being released to the public. During the lessons learned review, the panel identified discrepancies regarding who was responsible for external reporting, as well as the timing requirements. Which of the following actions would best address the reporting issue?  Creating a playbook denoting specific SLAs and containment actions per incident type  Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs  Defining which security incidents require external notifications and incident reporting in addition to internal stakeholders  Designating specific roles and responsibilities within the security team and stakeholders to streamline tasks Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs is the best action to address the reporting issue. Reporting SLAs are service level agreements that specify the time frame and the format for notifying the relevant authorities and the affected individuals of a data breach. Reporting SLAs may vary depending on the type and severity of the breach, the type and location of the data, the industry and jurisdiction of the organization, and the internal policies of the organization. By researching and documenting the reporting SLAs for different scenarios, the organization can ensure that it complies with the legal and ethical obligations of data breach notification, and avoid any penalties, fines, or lawsuits that may result from failing to report a breach in a timely and appropriate manner12. Reference: When and how to report a breach: Data breach reporting best practices, Incident and Breach ManagementNEW QUESTION 77A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?  InLoud:Cobain: YesGrohl: NoNovo: YesSmear: YesChanning: No  TSpirit:Cobain: YesGrohl: YesNovo: YesSmear: NoChanning: No  ENameless:Cobain: YesGrohl: NoNovo: YesSmear: NoChanning: No  PBleach:Cobain: YesGrohl: NoNovo: NoSmear: NoChanning: Yes The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: NoThis vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.NEW QUESTION 78A company is concerned with finding sensitive file storage locations that are open to the public. The current internal cloud network is flat. Which of the following is the best solution to secure the network?  Implement segmentation with ACLs.  Configure logging and monitoring to the SIEM.  Deploy MFA to cloud storage locations.  Roll out an IDS. Implementing segmentation with ACLs is the best solution to secure the network. Segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, or segments, based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Segmentation can help improve the network performance, scalability, and manageability, as well as enhance the network security by isolating the sensitive or critical data and systems from the rest of the network. ACLs are Access Control Lists, which are rules or policies that specify which users, devices, or applications can access a network segment or resource, and which actions they can perform. ACLs can help enforce the principle of least privilege, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the network segments or resources12. Configuring logging and monitoring to the SIEM, deploying MFA to cloud storage locations, and rolling out an IDS are all good security practices, but they are not the best solution to secure the network. Logging and monitoring to the SIEM can help detect and analyze the network events and incidents, but they do not prevent them. MFA can help authenticate the users who access the cloud storage locations, but it does not protect the network from attacks or breaches. IDS can help identify and alert the network intrusions, but it does not block them34 . Reference: Network Segmentation: What It Is and How to Do It Right, What is an Access Control List (ACL)? | IBM, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security, [What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? | IBM]NEW QUESTION 79Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure are discovered. Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies?  Implementing credentialed scanning  Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach  Implementing a central place to manage IT assets  Performing agentless scanning Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure. A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack of a central place to manage IT assets3. Reference: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best PracticesNEW QUESTION 80A security analyst is performing an investigation involving multiple targeted Windows malware binaries. The analyst wants to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers. Which of the following actions would allow the analyst to achieve the objective?  Upload the binary to an air-gapped sandbox for analysis.  Send the binaries to the antivirus vendor.  Execute the binaries on an environment with internet connectivity.  Query the file hashes using VirusTotal. An air-gapped sandbox is a virtual machine or a physical device that is isolated from any network connection.This allows the analyst to safely execute the malware binaries and observe their behavior without risking any communication with the attackers or any damage to other systems. Uploading the binary to an air-gapped sandbox is the best option to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers12 References:1: Dynamic Analysis of a Windows Malicious Self-Propagating Binary 2: GitHub – mikesiko/PracticalMalwareAnalysis-Labs: Binaries for the book Practical Malware AnalysisNEW QUESTION 81A security analyst discovers the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Which of the following threats applies to this situation?  Potential data loss to external users  Loss of public/private key management  Cloud-based authentication attack  Identification and authentication failures Potential data loss to external users is a threat that applies to this situation, where the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Data loss is an event that results in the destruction, corruption, or unauthorized disclosure of sensitive or confidential data. Data loss can occur due to various reasons, such as human error, hardware failure, malware infection, or cyberattack. In this case, hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service exposes the data to potential data loss to external users who may access it without authorization or maliciously modify or delete it .NEW QUESTION 82The following output is from a tcpdump al the edge of the corporate network:Which of the following best describes the potential security concern?  Payload lengths may be used to overflow buffers enabling code execution.  Encapsulated traffic may evade security monitoring and defenses  This traffic exhibits a reconnaissance technique to create network footprints.  The content of the traffic payload may permit VLAN hopping. Encapsulated traffic may evade security monitoring and defenses by hiding or obfuscating the actual content or source of the traffic. Encapsulation is a technique that wraps data packets with additional headers or protocols to enable communication across different network types or layers. Encapsulation can be used for legitimate purposes, such as tunneling, VPNs, or NAT, but it can also be used by attackers to bypass security controls or detection mechanisms that are not able to inspect or analyze the encapsulated traffic .NEW QUESTION 83During a cybersecurity incident, one of the web servers at the perimeter network was affected by ransomware.Which of the following actions should be performed immediately?  Shut down the server.  Reimage the server  Quarantine the server  Update the OS to latest version. Quarantining the server is the best action to perform immediately, as it isolates the affected server from the rest of the network and prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems or data. Quarantining the server also preserves the evidence of the ransomware attack, which can be useful for forensic analysis and law enforcement investigation. The other actions are not as urgent as quarantining the server, as they may not stop the ransomware infection, or they may destroy valuable evidence. Shutting down the server may not remove the ransomware, and it may trigger a data deletion mechanism by the ransomware. Reimaging the server may restore its functionality, but it will also erase any traces of the ransomware and make recovery of encrypted data impossible. Updating the OS to the latest version may fix some vulnerabilities, but it will not remove the ransomware or decrypt the data. Official References:https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ransomware-guidehttps://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Ransomware_Executive_One-Pager_and_Technical_Dhttps://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ive-been-hit-ransomwareNEW QUESTION 84You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.There must be one primary server or service per device.Only default port should be usedNon- secure protocols should be disabled.The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnetInstructions :Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.You must determineip address of each deviceThe primary server or service each deviceThe protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines see the answer below in explanationExplanation:Answer below imagesNEW QUESTION 85An incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country.Which of the following best describes what is happening? (Choose two.)  Beaconinq  Domain Name System hijacking  Social engineering attack  On-path attack  Obfuscated links  Address Resolution Protocol poisoning ExplanationA social engineering attack is a type of cyberattack that relies on manipulating human psychology rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities. A social engineering attack may involve deceiving, persuading, or coercing users into performing actions that benefit the attacker, such as clicking on malicious links, divulging sensitive information, or granting access to restricted resources. An obfuscated link is a link that has been disguised or altered to hide its true destination or purpose. Obfuscated links are often used by attackers to trick users into visiting malicious websites or downloading malware. In this case, an incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing a social engineering attack using obfuscated links.NEW QUESTION 86A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?  CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H  CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H  CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H  CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3 (Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics:Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to derive the score.The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level access.User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an application or an operating system.Confidentiality Impact : High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the system.Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the system.Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula:Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])Where:Impact = 6.42 x [1 – ((1 – Confidentiality) x (1 – Integrity) x (1 – Availability))] Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User Interaction Using this formula, we get:Impact = 6.42 x [1 – ((1 – 0.56) x (1 – 0.56) x (1 – 0.56))] = 5.9Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option.The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have different values for some of the Base metrics:CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network as the target system.CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a terminal or a command shell.NEW QUESTION 87You are a cybersecurity analyst tasked with interpreting scan data from Company As servers You must verify the requirements are being met for all of the servers and recommend changes if you find they are not The company’s hardening guidelines indicate the following* TLS 1 2 is the only version of TLSrunning.* Apache 2.4.18 or greater should be used.* Only default ports should be used.INSTRUCTIONSusing the supplied data. record the status of compliance With the company’s guidelines for each server.The question contains two parts: make sure you complete Part 1 and Part 2. Make recommendations for Issues based ONLY on the hardening guidelines provided.Part 1:AppServ1:AppServ2:AppServ3:AppServ4:Part 2: check the explanation part below for the solution:Explanation:Part 1:Part 2:Based on the compliance report, I recommend the following changes for each server:AppServ1: No changes are needed for this server.AppServ2: Disable or upgrade TLS 1.0 and TLS 1.1 to TLS 1.2 on this server to ensure secure encryption and communication between clients and the server. Update Apache from version 2.4.17 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs.AppServ3: Downgrade Apache from version 2.4.19 to version 2.4.18 or lower on this server to ensure compatibility and stability with the company’s applications and policies. Change the port number from 8080 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.AppServ4: Update Apache from version 2.4.16 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. Change the port number from 8443 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.NEW QUESTION 88A company receives a penetration test report summary from a third party. The report summary indicates a proxy has some patches that need to be applied. The proxy is sitting in a rack and is not beingused, as the company has replaced it with a new one. The CVE score of the vulnerability on the proxy is a 9.8. Which of the following best practices should the company follow with this proxy?  Leave the proxy as is.  Decomission the proxy.  Migrate the proxy to the cloud.  Patch the proxy The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.NEW QUESTION 89A security analyst is reviewing the logs of a web server and notices that an attacker has attempted to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following tools can the analyst use to analyze the attack and prevent future attacks?  A web application firewall  A network intrusion detection system  A vulnerability scanner  A web proxy A web application firewall (WAF) is a tool that can protect web servers from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and other web-based threats. A WAF can filter, monitor, and block malicious HTTP traffic before it reaches the web server. A WAF can also be configured with rules and policies to detect and prevent specific types of attacks.Reference:1: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)NEW QUESTION 90A cybersecurity analyst is concerned about attacks that use advanced evasion techniques. Which of the following would best mitigate such attacks?  Keeping IPS rules up to date  Installing a proxy server  Applying network segmentation  Updating the antivirus software Keeping IPS rules up to date is the best way to mitigate attacks that use advanced evasion techniques. An IPS (intrusion prevention system) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or prevents malicious activity based on predefined rules or signatures. Advanced evasion techniques are cyberattacks that combine various evasion methods to bypass security detection and protection tools, such as IPS. Keeping IPS rules up to date can help to ensure that the IPS can recognize and block the latest advanced evasion techniques and prevent them from compromising the network .NEW QUESTION 91A security manager is looking at a third-party vulnerability metric (SMITTEN) to improve upon the company’s current method that relies on CVSSv3. Given the following:Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized?  Vulnerability 1  Vulnerability 2  Vulnerability 3  Vulnerability 4 Vulnerability 2 should be prioritized as it is exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is exposed externally according to the SMITTEN metric. References: Vulnerability Management Metrics: 5 Metrics to Start Measuring in Your Program, Section: Vulnerability Severity.NEW QUESTION 92After identifying a threat, a company has decided to implement a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities. Which of the following risk management principles is the company exercising?  Transfer  Accept  Mitigate  Avoid ExplanationMitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.NEW QUESTION 93While reviewing web server logs, an analyst notices several entries with the same time stamps, but all contain odd characters in the request line. Which of the following steps should be taken next?  Shut the network down immediately and call the next person in the chain of command.  Determine what attack the odd characters are indicative of  Utilize the correct attack framework and determine what the incident response will consist of.  Notify the local law enforcement for incident response ExplanationDetermining what attack the odd characters are indicative of is the next step that should be taken after reviewing web server logs and noticing several entries with the same time stamps, but all contain odd characters in the request line. This step can help the analyst identify the type and severity of the attack, as well as the possible source and motive of the attacker. The odd characters in the request line may indicate that the attacker is trying to exploit a vulnerability or inject malicious code into the web server or application, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, or command injection. The analyst can use tools and techniques such as log analysis, pattern matching, signature detection, or threat intelligence to determine what attack the odd characters are indicative of, and then proceed to the next steps of incident response, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Official References:https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectiveshttps://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analysthttps://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered Loading … Guaranteed Success in CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-003 Exam Dumps: https://www.validexam.com/CS0-003-latest-dumps.html --------------------------------------------------- Images: https://premium.validexam.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif https://premium.validexam.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif --------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------- Post date: 2024-06-13 16:42:01 Post date GMT: 2024-06-13 16:42:01 Post modified date: 2024-06-13 16:42:01 Post modified date GMT: 2024-06-13 16:42:01